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Boring Radical Centrism's avatar

I think it is because murder can be arguably justified. Self-defence, or protecting others. If you believe Israel is unfairly oppressing Palestine, and you also believe armed conflict could lead to better conditions for Palestinians, Hamas murdering Israelis would be a good thing under many different moral systems. But there are virtually no moral systems in which the rape is justified- it is just adding significant suffering for no strategic goal.

Bianca Stelian's avatar

I think you conflate two points that should be considered separately — the sentiment about the crime, and the sentiment about the victim. Your ultimate argument about misallocation of sympathy is based on faulty reasoning. I will explain.

The benchmark you’re using to determine “badness” of the crime is vitality — that is, the effect the crime has on the victim’s ability to live. Through this framework, it follows that murder is “worse” than rape; that is, broadly speaking, what ends your life is worse than what doesn’t end your life.

Statistically, most murder victims are men, and most rape victims are women. You contend that despite the crime of murder being worse, humans tend to display more sympathy for rape victims than murder victims. You argue that this sympathy delta is irrational, attribute the irrationality to pro-female bias, and express how this bias “leads to misallocation of sympathy — away from men who need help more, and toward women who need help less.”

Your reasoning illogically considers sympathy as a resource. Sympathy is an emotion, not a resource, and thereby functions according to a different dynamic. Unlike a resource, it is not finite, measurable, or part of a zero-sum game. As such, the only person who can fully know and decide the value of sympathy is the recipient. A recipient of a financial settlement can know the value of $20k, and an observer can recognize the value of receiving $20k, because the value of a dollar is a quantifiable, universally agreed-upon, objective metric. But a recipient of sympathy cannot quantify its emotional weight, they can only feel it; similarly, an observer can consider what it might feel like to receive sympathy, but cannot quantify it. The value comes from the feeling of receiving it, which is an individual experience.

Individual experiences are only able to be had by people who are alive. Of the broad pool of murder and rape victims, based on statistics, more of the victims who die are men, and more of the victims who live are women. In other words, the majority of the pool of victims of these crimes who are able to receive and feel sympathy are women; you can’t receive or feel sympathy if you’re dead. It makes perfect sense that people would be more sympathetic to a victim of rape than of murder, because their sympathy has somewhere to go — though I think the word “allocate” reflects your miscategorization of sympathy, wouldn’t you agree that it would be most illogical to “allocate” sympathy towards someone who wouldn’t be able to receive it? Emotions are human currency, and you can’t offer this type of currency without a live human recipient.

Again, because sympathy is not a finite resource, it is not tethered to the severity of the crime, but the consideration of how the victim may suffer as a result of the crime. In other words, as an emotion, sympathy is not afforded based on the crime, it’s afforded based on the victim, because it is not an effort to assess the value of the crime, but to express an emotion towards the victim. If your argument were that pro-female bias leads to female rape victims receiving more sympathy than male rape victims, that would make logical sense, considering cultural norms downplaying the experiences of male rape victims. But when you contend that sympathy is not appropriately given towards “men who need help more,” I’m not sure what you’re frustrated about — that we aren’t sympathetic to corpses? What are you suggesting we do instead?

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