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Dave92f1's avatar

Something really bothers me about this post; I'm having trouble articulating just what.

It's correct. But it's obvious. Or, should be obvious here in 2022. The grim conformity imposed by socialism is a bog-standard trope of how socialism (esp. in the USSR and Mao's China) is perceived in the West - we see it in Hollywood movies (Hollywood is hardly a bastion of free-market thinking) and video games (think Half-Life and Gordon Freeman). It's in Orwell's 1984. We all know that communist countries ruthlessly suppressed rock and roll, homosexuality, non-standard individual expression of most every type, etc.

And we've known this for a long time. The arguments made here go back at least to Mises in the 1920s (probably further).

So - most everyone reading this blog (Westerners familiar with standard Hollywood tropes, video games, literature, etc.) should find this obvious, or at least not needing much argument.

Yet, somehow, that's not the case. Not only do we have Corey Robin, who might be some crazy outlier, but we also have the editors of the New York Times who must have perceived some plausibility in it.

I don't know what to make of this. The argument made here is a commonplace of economics, familiar to everyone who's taken even a single course in the subject. Has been for at least 70 years. And the conclusion is part of the standard fictional and literary tropes we're all familiar with - even those who know nothing about economics.

And yet here it is. How is this possible?

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Vladan Lausevic's avatar

Check also this regarding sweat shops in the global south https://glibe.substack.com/p/libertarianism-and-markets-morality

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